1) Which of the following represents the correct dimension of the coefficient of visocity ?

a )   M L -1 T-2 b )   M L T-1 c )   M L -1 T-1 d )   M L -2 T-2

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2) A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic energy for any displacement x is proportional to

a )   x2 b )   ex c )   x d )   logex

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3) A ball is released from top of a towerof height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?

a )   h/9 meters from the ground b )   7h/9 meters from the ground c )   8h/9 meters from the ground d )   17h/18 meters from the ground

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4) If A X B = B X A, then the angle between A and B is

a )   π b )   π/3 c )   π/2 d )   π/4

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5) A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If T1 and T2 be the time of flights in the two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is directly proportional to

a )   1/R2 b )   1/R c )   R d )   R2

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6) Which of the following statements is false for a particle moving in circle with a constant angular speed ?

a )   The velocity vector is tangent to the circle. b )   The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle. c )   The velocity vector points to the center of the circle. d )   The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other.

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7) An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h , can brake to stop within a distance of 20 m. if the car is going twice as fast, i.e. 120 km/h, the stopping distance will be ?

a )   20 m b )   40 m c )   60 m d )   80 m

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8) A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 m s-1> The man holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most ?

a )   one b )   four c )   two d )   three

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9) Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 4.8 kg tied to a string are hanging over a light frictionless pulley. What is the acceleration of the masses when left free to move ? (g = 9.8 m s -2)

a )   0.2 m s-2 b )   9.8 m s-2 c )   5 m s-2 d )   4.8 m s-2

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10) A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from th edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is th ework done in pulling the entire chain on the table.

a )   7.2 J b )   3.6 J c )   120 J d )   1200 J

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11) A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30degree with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane 0.8. If the frictional force on th eblock is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg) is ( consider g = 10 m/s2 )

a )   2.0 b )   4.0 c )   1.6 d )   2.5

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12) A force F = ( 5i + 3j + 2k ) N is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the point r = ( 2i - j ) m . The work done on the particle in joules is:

a )   - 7 b )   + 7 c )   + 10 d )   + 13

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13) A body of mass m, accelerates uniformly from rest to velocity v1 in time t1. The instantaneous power delivered to the body as a function of time t is :

a )   mv1t / t1 b )   mv12t / t12 c )   mv1t2 / t1 d )   mv12t/ t1

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14) A particle is acted by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that :

a )   Its velocity is constant. b )   Its acceleration is constant. c )   Its kinetic energy is constant. d )   It moves in a straight line.

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15) A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass same, which one of the following will not be affected ?

a )   momentum of intertia. b )   angular momentum. c )   angular velocity. d )   rotational kinetic energy.

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16) A sball is thrown from a point with a speed V0 at an angle of projection θ. From the same point and from the same instant, a person starts running with a constant speed V0/2 to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball.? If yes, what should be the angle of projection ?

a )   yes, 60°. b )   yes, 30°. c )   no. d )   yes, 45°.

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17) One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and of same outer radii. There moments of inertia about their diameters are respectively IA and IB such that ?

a )   IA = IB. b )   IA > IB. c )   IA < IB. d )   IA / IB = dA / dB.

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18) A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is ?

a )   gx b )   (gR)/(R - x) c )   (gR2)/(R + x) d )   ((gR2)/(R + x))1/2

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19) The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of

a )   the mass of the satellite b )   radius of its orbit c )   both the mass and radius of the orbit d )   neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit.

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20) If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth's surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is

a )   2 mgR b )   (1/2)mgR c )   (1/4)mgR d )   mgR

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21) Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be

a )   R((n+1)/2) b )   R((n-1)/2) c )   Rn d )   R((n-2)/2)

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22) A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length L by applying a force F. The work done in stretching is

a )   F/2L b )   FL c )   2FL d )   FL/2

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23) Spherical balls of radius R are falling in a viscous fluid of viscosity η with a velocity v. The retarding viscous force acting on the spherical ball is

a )   directly proportional to R but inversely proportional to velocity v b )   directly proportional to both radius R and velocity v c )   inversely proportional to both radius R and velocity v d )   inversely proportional to R but directly proportional to velocity v

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24) Two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube

a )   air flows from bigger bubble to smaller bubble till the sizes become equal. b )   air flows from bigger bubble to smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged. c )   air flows from smaller bubble to bigger d )   There is no flow of air

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25) The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air. Neglecting friction force of water and given that the density of the bob is (4/3) x 1000 kg/m3. What relationship between t and t0 is true ?

a )   t = t0 b )   t = t0/2 c )   t = 2t0 d )   t = 4t0

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26) A particle at the end of a spring executes simple harmonic motion with a period t1, while the corresponding period of another spring is t2. If the period of oscillation with the two springs in series is T, then

a )   T = t1 + t2 b )   T2 = t12 + t22 c )   T-1 = t1-1 + t2-1 d )   T-2 = t1-2 + t2-2

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27) The total energy of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion, is

a )   ∝ x b )   ∝ x2 c )   independent of x d )   ∝ x1/2

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28) The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as : y = 10-6sin(100t + 20x + π/4) m, where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is

a )   2000 m/s b )   5 m/s c )   20 m/s d )   5π m/s

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29) A particle of mass m is attached to a spring (of spring constant k) and has a natural angular frequency ω0. An external force F(t) proportional to cos ωt (ω ≠ ω0) is applied to the oscillator. The time displacement of the oscillator will be proportional to

a )   m/(ω02 - ω2) b )   1/(m(ω02 - ω2)) c )   1/(m(ω02 + ω2)) d )   m/(ω02 + ω2)

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30) A forced oscillation of a particle, the amplitude is maximum for a frequency ω1 of the force, while the energy is maximum for a frequency ω2 of the force, then

a )   ω1 = ω2 b )   ω1 > ω2 c )   ω1 < ω2 when damping is small and ω1 > ω2 when damping is large d )   ω1 < ω2

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31) One mole of ideal monoatomic gas (γ = 5/3) is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas (γ = 7/5). What is γ for the mixture ? γ denotes the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure, to that at constant volume

a )   3/2 b )   23/15 c )   35/23 d )   4/3

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32) If the temperature of the sunwere to increase from T to 3T and its radius from R to 2R, then the ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously will be

a )   4 b )   16 c )   32 d )   64

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33) Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system ?

a )   The internal energy changes in all processes b )   Internal energy and entropy are state functions. c )   The change in entropy can never by zero. d )   The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero.

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34) Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled with air at temperature (T1, T2), volumes (V1, V2) and pressures (P1, P2) respectively. If the valve joing the two vessels is opened, the temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will be

a )   T1 + T2 b )   (T1 + T2)/2 c )   T1T2(P1V1 + P2V2)/(P1V1T2 + P2V2T1) d )   T1T2(P1V1 + P2V2)/(P1V1T1 + P2V2T2)

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35) A radiation energy E falls normallyon a perfectly reflecting surface. The momemtum transferred to the surface is

a )   E/c b )   2E/c c )   Ec d )   E/c2

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36) The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x respectively are T2 and T1 (T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is ( (A(T2 - T1)K)/x )f, with f equal to

a )   1 b )   1/2 c )   2/3 d )   1/3

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37) A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected at glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the refractive index n

a )   n < 1/√2 b )   n > √2 c )   n > 1/√2 d )   n < √2

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38) A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved surface. Now this lens has been used to form the image of an object. At what distance from this lens an object be placed in order to have a real image of the size of the object

a )   20 cm b )   30 cm c )   60 cm d )   80 cm

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39) The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarised for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n, is

a )   sin-1(n) b )   sin-1(1/n) c )   tan-1(1/n) d )   tan-1(n)

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40) The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young's double-slit experiment is

a )   infinite b )   five c )   three d )   zero

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41) An electromagnetic wave of frequency ν = 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permitivity ε = 4.0. Then

a )   wavelength is doubled and frequency remains unchanged. b )   wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half. c )   wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged. d )   wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.

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42) Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F wahen kept apart at some distance A third speherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

a )   F/4 b )   3F/4 c )   F/8 d )   3F/8

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43) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed v. It approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the closest distances of approach would be

a )   r b )   2r c )   r/2 d )   r/4

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44) Four charges equal to -Q, are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q at its center. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is

a )   -(Q/4)(1+2√2) b )   (Q/4)(1+2√2) c )   -(Q/2)(1+2√2) d )   (Q/2)(1+2√2)

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45) Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter because

a )   A.C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter b )   A.C. changes direction c )   Average value of current for complete cycle is zero d )   D.C. ammeter will get damaged

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46) The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is

a )   1 A b )   2 A c )   4 A d )   6 A

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47) The resistance of the series combination of two resistance is S . When they are joined in parallel , the total resistance is P . If S = nP , then the minimum possible value of n is

a )   4 b )   3 c )   2 d )   1

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48) The electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material , connected in parallel . If the length and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and 2/3 , then the currents passing through the wires will be

a )   3 b )   1 / 3 c )   8 / 9 d )   2

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49) In a meter bridge experiment , null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y . If X < Y , then where will be the new position of the null point from the same end , if one decides to balance the resistance of 4X against Y ?

a )   50 cm b )   80 cm c )   40 cm d )   70 cm

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50) The thermistors are usually made of

a )   metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity b )   metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity c )   metal oxide with high temperature coefficient of resistivity d )   semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity

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51) Time taken by a 836 W heater to heat one litre of water from 10°C to 40°C is

a )   50 s b )   100 s c )   150 s d )   200 s

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52) The thermo emf of a thermocouple varies with the temperature θ of the hot junction as E = aθ + bθ2 in volts where the ratio a/b is 700°C . If the cold junction is kept at 0°C , then the neutral temperature is

a )   700°C b )   350°C c )   1400°C d )   no neutral temperature is possible for this thermocouple.

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53) The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is 3.3 x 10-7 kg per coulomb . The mass of the metal liberated at the cathode when a 3A current is passed for 2 second will be

a )   19.8 x 10-7 kg b )   9.9 x 10-7 kg c )   6.6 x 10-7 kg d )   1.1 x 10-7 kg

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54) A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube . Then the magnetic induction at any point inside the tube is

a )   infinite b )   zero c )   (μ0/4π).(2i/r) tesla d )   (2i/r) tesla

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55) A long wire carries a steady current . It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the center of the coil is B . It is then bent into a circular loop of n turns . The magnetic field at the center of the coil will be

a )   nB b )   n2B c )   2nB d )   2n2B

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56) The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from the center is 54 μT. What will be its value at the center of the loop ?

a )   250 μT b )   100 μT c )   125 μT d )   75 μT

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57) Two long cunductors separated by a distance d , carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction . They exerts a force F on each other . Now the current on one them is increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of force between them is

a )   - 2F b )   F/3 c )   - 2F/3 d )   - F/3

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58) The length of magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2 s. The magnet is cut along its length into three equal parts and three parts are then placed on each other with their like poles together. The time period of this combination will be

a )   2 s b )   2/3 s c )   2 s d )   2/ s

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59) The material suitable for making electromagnets should have

a )   high retentivity and high coercivity b )   low retentivity and low coercivity c )   high retentivity and low coercivity d )   low retentivity and high coercivity

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60) In an LCR series A.C circuit , the voltage across each of the components , L , C and R is 50 V. The voltage accross the LC combination will be

a )   50 V b )   50 V c )   100 V d )   0 V (zero)

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61) A coil having n turns and resistance R Ω is connected with a galvanometer of resistance 4R Ω. This combination is moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to W2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is:

a )   ( W2 - W1 ) / (5Rnt) b )   -n( W2 - W1 ) / (5Rt) c )   - ( W2 - W1 ) / ( Rnt ) d )   - n ( W2 - W1 ) / ( R t )

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62) In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form of semicircle of radius r rotates about the diameter of the circle with angular frequency ω . If the total resistance of the circuit is R, the mean power generated per period of rotation is:

a )   ( B π r2 ω) / (2 R) b )   ( B π r2 ω)2 / (8 R) c )   ( B π r ω)2 / (2 R) d )   ( B π r ω2)2 / (8 R)

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63) In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to

a )   4 L b )   2 L c )   L/2 d )   L/4

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64) A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 radians per second. If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is O.2 x 10-4 T, then the emf developed between the two ends of the conductor is:

a )   5 μ V b )   50 μ V c )   5 mV d )   50 mV

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65) According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal Vs the frequency, of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope:

a )   depends on the nature of the metal used b )   depends on the intensity of the radiation c )   depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used d )   is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

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66) The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately:

a )   540 nm b )   400 nm c )   310 nm d )   220 nm

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67) A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 x 1O V/rn so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be: (take the mass of the charge = 9.9x 10-15 kg and g = 10 m/s2)

a )   3.3 x 10-18 C b )   3.2 x 10-18 C c )   1.6 x 10-18 C d )   4.8 x 10-18 C

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68) A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be:

a )   21/3 : 1 b )   1 : 31/2 c )   31/2 : 1 d )   21/3 : 1

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69) The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (21H) and helium nucleus (42He) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei reacts to form a single helium nucleus, then the energy released is:

a )   13.9 MeV b )   26.9 MeV c )   23.6 MeV d )   19.2 MeV

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70) An α - particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of the closest approach is of the order of:

a )   1 Å b )   10-10 cm c )   10-12 cm d )   10-15 cm

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71) When npn transistor is used as an amplifier:

a )   electrons move from base to collector b )   holes move from emitter to base c )   electrons move from collector to base d )   holes move from base to emitter

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72) For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration for load impedance of 1 k &Omega (hfe = 50 and hoe = 25μA/V), the current gain is:

a )   -5.2 b )   -15.7 c )   -24.8 d )   -48.78

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73) A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77 K, the resistance of :

a )   each of them increases b )   each of them decreases c )   copper decreases and germanium increases d )   copper increases and germanium decreases

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74) The manifestation of band structure in solids is due to :

a )   Heisenberg's uncertainty principle b )   Pauli's exclusion principle c )   Bohr's correspondence principle d )   Boltzmann's law

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75) When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then:

a )   the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased b )   the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced c )   both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced d )   both the depletion region and barrier height are increased

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76) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f orbital?

a )   n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +1/2 b )   n = 4 , 1 = 4 , m = -4 , s = -1/2 c )   n = 4, l = 3, m = +1 , s = +1/2 d )   n = 3, l = 2, m = -2 , s = +1/2

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77) Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively:

a )   12 and 4 b )   12 and 5 c )   16 and 4 d )   16 and 5

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78) Which one of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius?

a )   Li+ b )   B3+ c )   O2- d )   F-

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79) The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = l.097x 107 m-1) :

a )   91 nm b )   192 nm c )   406 nm d )   9.1 x 10-8 nm

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80) The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is :

a )   H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 b )   NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3 c )   H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 d )   H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4

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81) Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species? (Atomic numbers F = 9, Cl = 17, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21)

a )   K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl- b )   N+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F- c )   K+, Cl-, Mg2+, Sc3+ d )   Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl-

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82) Among A1203, Si02, P203 and SO2 the correct order of acid strength is:

a )   SO2 < P203 < Si02 < A1203 b )   Si02 < SO2 < A1203 < P203 c )   A1203 < Si02 < SO2 < P203 d )   A1203 < Si02 < P203 < SO2

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83) The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species?

a )   Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO b )   Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+ c )   Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO d )   Bond length is unpredictable

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84) The formation of the oxide ion 02- (g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below. O(g) + e- = O-(g); ΔH° = -142 kJmol-1 O(g) + e- = O2-(g); ΔH° = 844 kJmol-1 This is because:

a )   oxygen is more electronegative b )   oxygen has high electron affinity c )   O- ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron d )   O- ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom

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85) The states of hybridisation of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively:

a )   sp2 and sp2 b )   sp2 and sp3 c )   sp3 and sp2 d )   sp3 and sp3

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86) Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure? (Atomic numbers B = 5, 5 = 16, Ni = 28, Xe = 54)

a )   XeF4 b )   SF4 c )   BF-4 d )   [Ni(CN)4]2-

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87) Of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, the highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of them?

a )   (n - 1) d8ns2 b )   (n - 1) d5ns1 c )   (n - 1) d3ns2 d )   (n - 1) d5ns2

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88) As the temperature is raised from 20°C to 40°C, the average kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a factor of which of the following?

a )   1 / 2 b )   c )   313/293 d )   2

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89) The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in:

a )   dsp3 hybridisation b )   sp3d hybridisation c )   dsp2 hybridisation d )   sp3d2 hybridisation

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90) Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?

a )   0.01 M Na2SO4 b )   0.01 M KNO3 c )   0.015 M urea d )   0.015 M glucose

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91) Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the strongest oxidising agent?

a )   Electron affinity b )   Ionisation enthalpy c )   Hydration enthalpy d )   Bond dissociation energy

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92) In Van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the constant 'b' is a measure of:

a )   intermolecular repulsions b )   intermolecular attraction c )   volume occupied by the molecules d )   intermolecular collisions per unit volume

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93) The conjugate base of H2PO4- is :

a )   PO43- b )   P2O5 c )   H3PO4 d )   HPO42-

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94) 6.02x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is : (Avogadro constant, NA =6.02x1023 mol-1)

a )   0.001 M b )   0.01 M c )   0.02 M d )   0.1 M

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95) To neutralise completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorus acid (H3PO3), the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is:

a )   10 mL b )   20 mL c )   40 mL d )   60 mL

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96) For which of the following parameters the structural isomers C2H5OH and CH3OCH3 would be expected to have the same values?

a )   Heat of vaporisation b )   Vapour pressure at the same temperature c )   Boiling points d )   Gaseous densities at the same temperature and pressure

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97) Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law?

a )   Water - hydrochloric acid b )   Benzene - methanol c )   Water - nitric acid d )   Acetone - chloroform

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98) Which one of the following statements is false?

a )   Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole fraction b )   The osmotic pressure (π) of a solution is given by the equation π = MRT, where M is the molarity of the solution c )   The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KC1 > CH3COOH > sucrose d )   Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing point depression

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99) What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below?

a )   Frenkel defect b )   Schottky defect c )   Interstitial defect d )   Frenkel and Schottky defects

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100) An ideal gas expands in volume from 1x 10-3m3 to 1x 10-2m3 at 300K against a constant pressure of 1 x 105 Nm-2. The work done is:

a )   -900 J b )   -900 kJ c )   270 kJ d )   900 kJ

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101) In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to:

a )   generate heat b )   create potential difference between the two electrodes c )   produce high purity water d )   remove absorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces

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102) In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant, decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is:

a )   30 min b )   15 min c )   7.5 min d )   60 min

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103) What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction

a )   b )   c )   Kc = [ Oc ]5 d )

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104) For the reaction, the Kp/Kc is equal to:

a )   1 / (RT) b )   RT c )   d )   1.0

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105) The equilibrium constant for the reaction at temperature T is 4x 10-4. The value of Kc for the reaction:

a )   2.5 x 102 b )   50 c )   4 x 10-4 d )   0.02

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106) The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B → C is found to be : rate = k = [A][B].

a )   unit of k must be s-1 b )   t1/2 is a constant c )   rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A d )   value of k is independent of the initial concentrations of A and B

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107) Consider the following E° values: E°Fe3+/Fe2+ = +0.77 V E°Sn2+/Sn = -0.14 V Under standard conditions the potential for the reaction Sn(s) + 2Fe3+ (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + Sn2+ (aq) is:

a )   1.68 V b )   1.40 V c )   0.91 V d )   0.63 V

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108) The molar solubility (in mol L-1) of a sparingly soluble salt MX4 is 's'. The corresponding solubility product Ksp . s is given in terms of by the relation:

a )   s = (Ksp/128)1/4 b )   s = ( 128 Ksp )1/4 c )   s = ( 256 Ksp )1/5 d )   s = ( Ksp/256 )1/5

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109) The standard e.m.f of a cell, involving one electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is (F = 96,500 C mol-1, R = 8.3 14 JK-1 mol-1):

a )   1.0 x 101 b )   1.0 x 105 c )   1.0 x 1010 d )   1.0 x 1030

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110) The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283 kJ mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is:

a )   110.5 kJ b )   676.5 kJ c )   -676.5 kJ d )   -110.5 kJ

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111) The limiting molar conductivities ∧° for NaC1, KEr and KC1 are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The ∧° for NaBr is:

a )   128 5 cm2 mol-1 b )   176 5 cm2 mol-1 c )   278 5 cm2 mol-1 d )   302 S cm2 mol-1

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112) In a cell that utilizes the reaction Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + H2(g) addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment, will:

a )   lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left b )   lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the right c )   increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the right d )   increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the left

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113) Which one of the following statements regarding helium is incorrect?

a )   It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen because it is lighter and non-inflammable b )   It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out experiments at low temperatures c )   It is used to produce and sustain powerful superconducting magnets d )   It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors

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114) Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:

a )   Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T - 1000K). b )   Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action c )   Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned d )   Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.

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115) One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with an excess of water gives:

a )   one mole of ammonia b )   one mole of nitric acid c )   two moles of ammonia d )   two moles of nitric acid

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116) Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth-floatation method?

a )   Magnetite b )   Cassiterite c )   Galena d )   Malachite

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117) Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in:

a )   exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds b )   forming polymeric hydrides c )   forming covalent halides d )   exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

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118) Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state as well as in solution of non-polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives:

a )   Al3+ + 3Cl- b )   [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl- c )   [Al(OH)6]3- + 3HCl d )   Al2Cl3 + 6HCl

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119) The soldiers of Napoleon army while at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious problem as regards to the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin buttons got converted to grey powder. This transformation is related to:

a )   a change in the crystalline structure of tin b )   an interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low temperatures c )   a change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air d )   an interaction with water vapour contained in the humid air

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120) The E°M3+/M2+ values of Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are -0.41, + 1.57, +0.77 and +1.97 V respectively. For which one of these metals the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest?

a )   Cr b )   Mn c )   Fe d )   Co

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121) Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution and then Na2S2O3 solution is added to it. Which of the statements is incorrect for this reaction?

a )   Cu2I2 is formed b )   Cu I2 is formed c )   Na2S2O3 is oxidised d )   Evolved I2 is reduced

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122) Among the properties (A) reducing (B) oxidising (C) complexing, the set of properties shown by CN- ion towards metal species is:

a )   A, B b )   B, C c )   C, A d )   A, B, C

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123) The co-ordination number of a central metal atom in a complex is determined by:

a )   the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma bonds b )   the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by pi-bonds c )   the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma and pi-bonds both d )   the number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal ion

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124) Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital complex?

a )   [Fe(CN)6]4- b )   [Mne(CN)6]4- c )   [Co(NH3)6]3+ d )   [Ni(NH3)6]2+

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125) Co-ordination compounds have great importance in biological systems. In this context which of the following statements is incorrect?

a )   Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain calcium b )   Haemoglobin is the red pigments of blood and contains iron c )   Cyanocobalamin is vitamin B12 and contains cobalt d )   Carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme and contains zinc

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126) Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lanthanides. Which of the following statements about cerium is incorrect?

a )   The common oxidation states of cerium are +3 and +4 b )   The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than the +4 oxidation state c )   The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions d )   Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidising agent

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127) Which one of the following has largest number of isomers? (R = alkyl group, en = ethylenediamine)

a )   [Ru(NH3)4 Cl2]+ b )   [Co(NH3)5 Cl2]2+ c )   [ I r(Pr3)2 H (CO) ]2+ d )   [ Co( en )2 Cl2 ]+

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128) The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in (B.M.) among the following is:

a )   [MnCl4]2- > [CoCl4]2- > Fe(CN)6]4- b )   [MnCl4]2- > Fe(CN)6]4- > [CoCl4]2- c )   Fe(CN)6]4- > [MnCl4]2- > [CoCl4]2- d )   Fe(CN)6]4- > [CoCl4]2- > [MnCl4]2-

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129) Consider the following nuclear reactions: The number of neutrons in the element L is:

a )   142 b )   144 c )   140 d )   146

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130) The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, the mass remaining after 24 hours undecayed is:

a )   1.042 g b )   2.084 g c )   3.125 g d )   4.167 g

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131) The compound formed in the positive test for nitrogen with the Lassaigne solution of an organic compound is :

a )   Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 b )   Na3[Fe(CN)6] c )   Fe(CN)3 d )   Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

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132) The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The excess of acid required 20 mL of 0.5 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralisation. The organic compound is:

a )   acetamide b )   benzamide c )   urea d )   thiourea

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133) Which one of the following has the minimum boiling point?

a )   n-butane b )   1-butyne c )   1-butene d )   Isobutene

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134) The IUPAC name of the compound is

a )   3, 3 - dimethyl - 1- hydroxy cyclohexane b )   1, 1- dimethyl -3 - hydroxy cyclohexane c )   3, 3 - dimethyl -1- cyclohexanol d )   1,1- dimethyl -3 - cyclohexanol

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135) Which one of the following does not have sp2 hybridised carbon?

a )   Acetone b )   Acetic acid c )   Acetonitrile d )   Acetamide

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136) Which of the following will have a meso-isomer also?

a )   2- chlorobutane b )   2,3 - dichlorobutane c )   2,3 - dichloropentane d )   2 - hydroxypropanoic acid

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137) Rate of the reaction

a )   Cl b )   NH2 c )   OC2H5 d )   OCOCH3

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138) Amongst the following compounds, the optically active alkane having lowest molecular mass is:

a )   CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH3 b )   c )   d )   CH3 - CH2 - CH ≡ CH

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139) Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids: (i) PhCOOH (ii) o-NO2C6H4COOH (iii) p-NO2C6H4COOH (iv) m-NO2C6H4COOH Which of the following order is correct?

a )   i > ii > iii > iv b )   ii > iv > iii > i c )   ii > iv > i > iii d )   ii > iii > iv > i

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140) Which of the following is the strongest base?

a )   b )   c )   d )

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141) Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

a )   Uracil b )   Cytosine c )   Guanine d )   Thymine

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142) The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with chioral in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid is:

a )   gammexene b )   DDT c )   freon d )   hexachioroethane

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143) On mixing ethyl acetate with aqueous sodium chloride, the composition of the resultant solution is:

a )   CH3COOC2H5 + NaCl b )   CH3COONa + C2H5OH c )   CH3COCl + C2H5OH + NaOH d )   CH3Cl + C2H5COONa

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144) Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3MgI followed by treatment with a saturated solution of NH4Cl gives:

a )   acetone b )   acetamide c )   2-methyl-2-propanol d )   acetyl iodide

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145) Which one of the following is reduced with zinc and hydrochloric acid to give the corresponding hydrocarbon?

a )   Ethyl acetate b )   Acetic acid c )   Acetamide d )   Butan-2-one

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146) Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid?

a )   Phenol b )   Benzaldehyde c )   Butanal d )   Benzoic acid

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147) Among the following compounds which can be dehydrated very easily?

a )   CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH b )   c )   d )

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148) Which of the following compounds is not chiral?

a )   1-chioropentane b )   2-chioropentane c )   1 -chloro-2-methyl pentane d )   3-chloro-2-methyl pentane

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149) Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?

a )   A co-enzyme b )   A hormone c )   An enzyme d )   An antibiotic

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150) The smog is essentially caused by the presence of:

a )   O2 and O3 b )   O2 and N2 c )   oxides of sulphur and nitrogen d )   O3 and N2

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